NATIONAL TEACHERS’ ELIGIBILITY TEST FOR AYSUH TEACHERS
Question paper - 1
Division of Questions (As per NCH & NCISM Syllabus)
1. Teaching Training methods - 20
2. Communication - 10
3. Class room management - 10
4. Assessment methods - 15
5. Educational technologies - 10
6. Educational Psychology - 15
7. Andragogy in Education - 10
8. Learning and Pedagogy - 1
1. Which of the following is NOT a common method used in teacher training?
a) Microteaching
b) Simulation
c) Lecture method
d) Telepathy Answer: d) Telepathy
2. The practice of teaching a small group of peers for a short duration to develop specific skills is known as:
a) Macro teaching
b) Microteaching
c) Team teaching
d) Peer tutoring
Answer: b) Microteaching
3. Which training method involves trainees assuming roles and acting out situations that might occur in the classroom?
a) Case study
b) Lecture method
c) Role-playing
d) Demonstration Answer: c) Role-playing
4. The technique where an experienced teacher models a teaching strategy or skill for trainees is called:
a) Simulation
b) Demonstration
c) Role-playing
d) Brainstorming Answer: b) Demonstration
5. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the workshop method in teacher training?
a) Passive listening
b) Individual work only
c) Hands-on activities
d) Theoretical lectures Answer: c) Hands-on activities
6. The flipped classroom model in teacher training involves:
a) Teachers lecturing while students take notes
b) Trainees studying content before sessions and applying it during training
c) Only using digital tools for instruction
d) Focusing solely on theoretical concepts
Answer: b) Trainees studying content before sessions and applying it during training
7. Which method involves trainees analyzing and discussing specific educational scenarios?
a) Lecture method
b) Demonstration
c) Case study
d) Microteaching Answer: c) Case study
8. Collaborative learning in teacher training emphasizes:
a) Individual competition
b) Group work and peer interaction
c) Lecture-based instruction
d) Standardized testing
Answer: b) Group work and peer interaction
9. The primary purpose of reflective practice in teacher training is to:
a) Increase theoretical knowledge
b) Improve classroom management skills
c) Enhance self-awareness and professional growth
d) Standardize teaching methods
Answer: c) Enhance self-awareness and professional growth
10. Which of the following is NOT typically a component of action research in teacher training?
a) Identifying a problem
b) Collecting and analyzing data
c) Implementing changes based on findings
d) Avoiding collaboration with colleagues Answer: d) Avoiding collaboration with colleagues
11. The use of technology to deliver training content to teachers regardless of their location is known as:
a) E-learning
b) Microteaching
c) Demonstration
d) Role-playing Answer: a) E-learning
12. Peer coaching in teacher training involves:
a) Experienced teachers lecturing novices
b) Teachers observing and providing feedback to each other
c) Administrators evaluating teachers
d) Students teaching their classmates
Answer: b) Teachers observing and providing feedback to each other
13. Which method focuses on developing teachers' ability to make quick decisions in dynamic classroom situations?
a) Lecture method
b) Case study
c) Simulation
d) Reflective practice Answer: c) Simulation
14. The primary goal of the seminar method in teacher training is to:
a) Provide one-way lectures
b) Encourage active discussion and exchange of ideas
c) Demonstrate practical skills
d) Conduct formal assessments
Answer: b) Encourage active discussion and exchange of ideas
15. Which of the following is a key principle of andragogy (adult learning theory) relevant to teacher training?
a) Adults learn best through passive listening
b) Adults are not interested in practical applications
c) Adults bring valuable experience to the learning process
d) Adults prefer rigid, structured learning environments
Answer: c) Adults bring valuable experience to the learning process
16. The "train the trainer" model in teacher education aims to:
a) Replace all experienced teachers
b) Create a cascade effect of knowledge dissemination
c) Eliminate the need for ongoing professional development
d) Focus solely on theoretical knowledge
Answer: b) Create a cascade effect of knowledge dissemination
17. Which method involves teachers systematically examining and improving their own teaching practices?
a) Lecture method
b) Demonstration
c) Action research
d) Role-playing
Answer: c) Action research
18. The primary purpose of mentoring in teacher training is to:
a) Replace formal education
b) Provide personalized support and guidance
c) Evaluate teacher performance
d) Standardize teaching methods
Answer: b) Provide personalized support and guidance
19. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of problem-based learning in teacher training?
a) Focus on real-world educational issues
b) Collaborative group work
c) Self-directed learning
d) Emphasis on memorization of facts Answer: d) Emphasis on memorization of facts
20. The concept of "communities of practice" in teacher training refers to:
a) Isolated individual learning
b) Groups of teachers sharing and developing expertise
c) Online-only training programs
d) Standardized national curricula
Answer: b) Groups of teachers sharing and developing expertise
21. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the basic elements of the communication process?
a) Sender
b) Message
c) Channel
d) Interpretation
Answer: d) Interpretation
22. Non-verbal communication includes:
a) Spoken words
b) Written text
c) Body language
d) Verbal feedback Answer: c) Body language
23. Which communication barrier occurs when the sender and receiver have different understandings of the same words?
a) Physical barrier
b) Semantic barrier
c) Psychological barrier
d) Cultural barrier Answer: b) Semantic barrier
24. The ability to understand and share the feelings of another is called:
a) Sympathy
b) Apathy
c) Empathy
d) Telepathy Answer: c) Empathy
25. Which of the following is an example of one-way communication in a classroom?
a) Group discussion
b) Lecture without Q&A
c) Peer tutoring
d) Socratic method
Answer: b) Lecture without Q&A
26. Active listening in the classroom involves:
a) Interrupting the speaker to share your own ideas
b) Focusing solely on the speaker's words
c) Providing verbal and non-verbal feedback
d) Multitasking while someone is speaking
Answer: c) Providing verbal and non-verbal feedback
27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective feedback in education?
a) Timely
b) Specific
c) Judgmental
d) Constructive Answer: c) Judgmental
28. The "noise" in the communication process refers to:
a) Literal background sounds
b) Any interference that distorts the message
c) The volume of the speaker's voice
d) The receiver's internal dialogue
Answer: b) Any interference that distorts the message
29. Which communication style is characterized by expressing one's own rights and needs while respecting others?
a) Passive
b) Aggressive
c) Assertive
d) Submissive Answer: c) Assertive
30. In the context of classroom communication, "wait time" refers to:
a) The duration of a class period
b) Time taken to prepare lesson plans
c) Pause after asking a question before calling on a student
d) Time allocated for students to complete assignments
Answer: c) Pause after asking a question before calling on a student
31. Which of the following is NOT typically considered one of the main goals of effective classroom management?
a) Creating a positive learning environment
b) Maximizing instructional time
c) Promoting student engagement
d) Increasing teacher authority Answer: d) Increasing teacher authority
32. The practice of establishing clear expectations and routines at the beginning of the school year is known as:
a) Positive reinforcement
b) Behavior modification
c) Proactive discipline
d) Reactive management Answer: c) Proactive discipline
33. Which classroom management approach emphasizes student choice and problem-solving skills?
a) Authoritarian
b) Permissive
c) Democratic
d) Laissez-faire Answer: c) Democratic
34. The "Premack Principle" in classroom management refers to:
a) Punishing undesirable behaviors
b) Using preferred activities as rewards for less preferred ones
c) Ignoring misbehavior
d) Grouping students by ability
Answer: b) Using preferred activities as rewards for less preferred ones
35. Which of the following is an example of a non-verbal cue for managing student behavior?
a) Verbal reprimand
b) Time-out
c) Eye contact
d) Written warning Answer: c) Eye contact
36. The practice of briefly removing a student from an activity or environment where inappropriate behavior has occurred is called:
a) Positive reinforcement
b) Time-out
c) Extinction
d) Shaping Answer: b) Time-out
37. Which classroom management strategy involves students in creating and upholding class rules?
a) Token economy
b) Behavior contract
c) Classroom constitution
d) Teacher-directed discipline Answer: c) Classroom constitution
38. The "broken windows theory" applied to classroom management suggests that:
a) Minor infractions should be ignored to focus on major issues
b) Addressing small problems prevents larger ones
c) Strict punishment is the most effective deterrent
d) Students should be responsible for classroom repairs Answer: b) Addressing small problems prevents larger ones
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective classroom rules?
a) Clear and specific
b) Positively stated
c) Numerous and comprehensive
d) Consistently enforced
Answer: c) Numerous and comprehensive
40. The practice of acknowledging and rewarding positive behaviors to encourage their repetition is known as:
a) Negative reinforcement
b) Positive reinforcement
c) Punishment
d) Extinction
Answer: b) Positive reinforcement
41. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of formative assessment?
a) To provide feedback during the learning process
b) To monitor student learning
c) To assign final grades
d) To identify areas for improvement Answer: c) To assign final grades
42. Which assessment type is typically used to evaluate learning at the end of an instructional unit?
a) Diagnostic assessment
b) Formative assessment
c) Summative assessment
d) Ipsative assessment
Answer: c) Summative assessment
43. The practice of students evaluating their own work is known as:
a) Peer assessment
b) Self-assessment
c) Portfolio assessment
d) Authentic assessment Answer: b) Self-assessment
44. Which of the following is an example of an authentic assessment?
a) Multiple-choice test
b) True/false quiz
c) Science fair project
d) Standardized test
Answer: c) Science fair project
45. The term "rubric" in assessment refers to:
a) A type of multiple-choice question
b) A scoring guide with specific criteria
c) A standardized test format
d) A method of randomizing test questions Answer: b) A scoring guide with specific criteria
46. Which assessment method involves collecting student work over time to show growth and achievement?
a) Standardized testing
b) Portfolio assessment
c) Pop quiz
d) Norm-referenced assessment Answer: b) Portfolio assessment
47. The practice of comparing a student's performance to that of other students is called:
a) Criterion-referenced assessment
b) Norm-referenced assessment
c) Ipsative assessment
d) Formative assessment
Answer: b) Norm-referenced assessment
48. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective feedback in assessment?
a) Delayed delivery
b) General comments
c) Focus on personal qualities
d) Specific and actionable Answer: d) Specific and actionable
49. The term "validity" in assessment refers to:
a) The consistency of test scores
b) The fairness of the test
c) The extent to which a test measures what it's supposed to measure
d) The difficulty level of the test
Answer: c) The extent to which a test measures what it's supposed to measure
50. Which assessment type is typically used at the beginning of a course to determine students' prior knowledge?
a) Summative assessment
b) Formative assessment
c) Diagnostic assessment
d) Ipsative assessment
Answer: c) Diagnostic assessment
51. The practice of students assessing each other's work is known as:
a) Self-assessment
b) Peer assessment
c) Teacher assessment
d) External assessment Answer: b) Peer assessment
52. Which of the following is an advantage of using multiple-choice questions in assessment?
a) They assess higher-order thinking skills
b) They are easy to score objectively
c) They eliminate guessing
d) They provide detailed feedback
Answer: b) They are easy to score objectively
53. The term "reliability" in assessment refers to:
a) The consistency of test scores
b) The fairness of the test
c) The difficulty level of the test
d) The relevance of the test content Answer: a) The consistency of test scores
54. Which assessment approach focuses on evaluating a student's progress compared to their own previous performance?
a) Norm-referenced assessment
b) Criterion-referenced assessment
c) Ipsative assessment
d) Standardized assessment Answer: c) Ipsative assessment
55. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a benefit of using rubrics in assessment?
a) Increased objectivity in scoring
b) Clearer expectations for students
c) Reduced grading time
d) Elimination of the need for feedback Answer: d) Elimination of the need for feedback
56. Which of the following best describes a Learning Management System (LMS)?
a) A device used for projecting images in the classroom
b) A software application for administering, documenting, and delivering educational courses
c) A tool for creating digital presentations
d) A type of interactive whiteboard
Answer: b) A software application for administering, documenting, and delivering educational courses
57. What does the term "BYOD" stand for in educational technology?
a) Build Your Own Device
b) Bring Your Own Device
c) Buy Your Own Device
d) Borrow Your Own Device Answer: b) Bring Your Own Device
58. Which of the following is an example of assistive technology in education?
a) Virtual reality headset
b) Screen reader software
c) 3D printer
d) Smartboard
Answer: b) Screen reader software
59. What is the primary purpose of a digital portfolio in education?
a) To store student grades
b) To showcase student work and track progress over time
c) To manage classroom schedules
d) To create multimedia presentations
Answer: b) To showcase student work and track progress over time
60. Which of the following best describes "blended learning"?
a) A combination of online and face-to-face instruction
b) Using multiple languages in instruction
c) Mixing students of different age groups
d) Combining different subjects in one lesson
Answer: a) A combination of online and face-to-face instruction
61. What is the main purpose of a classroom response system (clicker)?
a) To control classroom lighting
b) To take attendance
c) To gather real-time feedback and assess student understanding
d) To play educational games
Answer: c) To gather real-time feedback and assess student understanding
62. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a benefit of using educational technology?
a) Increased student engagement
b) Personalized learning experiences
c) Reduced need for teacher involvement
d) Enhanced collaboration opportunities Answer: c) Reduced need for teacher involvement
63. What does "gamification" in education refer to?
a) Using video games as the primary method of instruction
b) Applying game-design elements and principles in learning contexts
c) Teaching students how to create their own games
d) Using board games in the classroom
Answer: b) Applying game-design elements and principles in learning contexts
64. Which of the following best describes a "flipped classroom" model?
a) Students learn new content in class and practice at home
b) Students learn new content at home and practice in class
c) Teachers and students switch roles regularly
d) Classes are held outside the traditional classroom setting Answer: b) Students learn new content at home and practice in class
65. What is the primary purpose of a Learning Analytics system in education?
a) To create digital textbooks
b) To manage school finances
c) To collect, measure, and analyze data about learners and their contexts
d) To schedule classes and manage timetables
Answer: c) To collect, measure, and analyze data about learners and their contexts
66. . Which theory emphasizes the importance of observational learning and modeling in the learning process?
a) Behaviorism
b) Constructivism
c) Social Cognitive Theory
d) Psychoanalytic Theory
Answer: c) Social Cognitive Theory
67. Piaget's theory of cognitive development includes which of the following stages?
a) Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency
b) Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational
c) Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt
d) Assimilation, Accommodation, Equilibration
Answer: b) Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, Formal Operational
68. The concept of "scaffolding" in education is most closely associated with which theorist?
a) Jean Piaget
b) B.F. Skinner
c) Lev Vygotsky
d) Erik Erikson Answer: c) Lev Vygotsky
69. Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner's Multiple Intelligences?
a) Linguistic Intelligence
b) Logical-Mathematical Intelligence
c) Creativity Intelligence
d) Musical Intelligence
Answer: c) Creativity Intelligence
70. The phenomenon where students perform poorly due to anxiety caused by negative stereotypes about their social group is called:
a) Self-fulfilling prophecy
b) Stereotype threat
c) Attribution bias
d) Cognitive dissonance Answer: b) Stereotype threat
71. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs places which need at the top of the pyramid?
a) Safety needs
b) Esteem needs
c) Self-actualization needs
d) Belongingness needs
Answer: c) Self-actualization needs
72. Which learning theory emphasizes the importance of reinforcement and consequences in shaping behavior?
a) Constructivism
b) Cognitivism
c) Behaviorism
d) Humanism
Answer: c) Behaviorism
73. The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to:
a) The area between a child's current development level and potential development level
b) The physical area in a classroom most conducive to learning
c) The time period when a child is most receptive to learning
d) The gap between a teacher's expectations and a student's performance
Answer: a) The area between a child's current development level and potential development level
74. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?
a) Studying to get good grades
b) Learning a new skill out of curiosity
c) Completing homework to avoid punishment
d) Participating in class for extra credit Answer: b) Learning a new skill out of curiosity
75. The process of thinking about one's own thinking is known as:
a) Reflection
b) Metacognition
c) Critical thinking
d) Cognition
Answer: b) Metacognition
76. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of students with a growth mindset?
a) Embracing challenges
b) Persisting in the face of setbacks
c) Avoiding difficult tasks
d) Seeing effort as a path to mastery Answer: c) Avoiding difficult tasks
77. The term "emotional intelligence" refers to:
a) The ability to solve mathematical problems quickly
b) The capacity to be aware of, control, and express one's emotions
c) The skill of memorizing large amounts of information
d) The talent for creative writing and storytelling
Answer: b) The capacity to be aware of, control, and express one's emotions
78. Which learning style theory suggests that people prefer to learn through visual, auditory, or kinesthetic means?
a) Multiple Intelligences Theory
b) VAK Learning Styles Model
c) Kolb's Experiential Learning Theory
d) Bloom's Taxonomy
Answer: b) VAK
Learning Styles Model
79. The tendency to attribute one's successes to internal factors and failures to external factors is known as:
a) Fundamental attribution error
b) Self-serving bias
c) Confirmation bias
d) Availability heuristic Answer: b) Self-serving bias
80. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Erikson's psychosocial development theory?
a) Trust vs. Mistrust
b) Identity vs. Role Confusion
c) Integrity vs. Despair
d) Concrete Operations vs. Formal Operations Answer: d) Concrete Operations vs. Formal Operations
81. Who is considered the father of andragogy?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Malcolm Knowles
c) John Dewey
d) B.F. Skinner
Answer: b) Malcolm Knowles
82. Which of the following is NOT one of Knowles' assumptions about adult learners?
a) Adults are self-directed learners
b) Adults bring life experiences to learning situations
c) Adults are primarily extrinsically motivated
d) Adults are problem-centered in their learning Answer: c) Adults are primarily extrinsically motivated
83. In andragogy, the role of the teacher is best described as:
a) The sole source of knowledge
b) A facilitator or guide
c) An authoritarian figure
d) A passive observer
Answer: b) A facilitator or guide
84. Which of the following is a key principle of andragogy?
a) Learning should be teacher-centered
b) Adults learn best through memorization
c) Adults need to know the reason for learning something
d) Adult learning should focus on theoretical knowledge over practical skills Answer: c) Adults need to know the reason for learning something
85. The concept of "self-directed learning" in andragogy refers to:
a) Learning without any guidance from others
b) Adults taking responsibility for their own learning decisions
c) Studying exclusively through online resources
d) Learning only topics that interest the individual
Answer: b) Adults taking responsibility for their own learning decisions
86. Which learning theory aligns most closely with andragogical principles?
a) Behaviorism
b) Constructivism
c) Cognitivism
d) Psychoanalytic theory Answer: b) Constructivism
87. In andragogy, the primary motivation for adult learners is typically:
a) External rewards and punishments
b) Grades and academic recognition
c) Internal factors such as self-esteem and quality of life
d) Compulsory attendance requirements
Answer: c) Internal factors such as self-esteem and quality of life
88. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adult learners according to andragogical principles?
a) They are autonomous and self-directed
b) They are goal-oriented
c) They rely heavily on rote memorization
d) They bring life experiences and knowledge to learning experiences Answer: c) They rely heavily on rote memorization
89. The andragogical approach to curriculum design emphasizes:
a) Rigid, pre-determined content
b) Flexibility and learner input
c) Standardized testing
d) Age-based grouping of learners Answer: b) Flexibility and learner input
90. Which of the following best describes the concept of "immediacy of application" in andragogy?
a) Adults prefer to apply their learning immediately to real-life situations
b) Adults learn best when information is presented rapidly
c) Adult education should focus only on short-term goals
d) Learning activities should be completed as quickly as possible
Answer: a) Adults prefer to apply their learning immediately to real-life situations
91. Which of the following theories emphasizes the importance of social interaction in cognitive development?
A) Behaviorism
B) Cognitivism
C) Social Constructivism
D) Humanism
Answer: C) Social Constructivism
92. The concept of "Zone of Proximal Development" was introduced by:
A) Jean Piaget
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) B.F. Skinner
D) Erik Erikson
Answer: B) Lev Vygotsky
93. Which learning style is characterized by a preference for hands-on experience and active experimentation?
A) Visual
B) Auditory
C) Kinesthetic
D) Reading/Writing Answer: C) Kinesthetic
94. The theory of Multiple Intelligences was proposed by:
A) Howard Gardner
B) Daniel Goleman
C) Robert Sternberg
D) Abraham Maslow Answer: A) Howard Gardner
95. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Bloom's Taxonomy (Revised)?
A) Remembering
B) Applying
C) Synthesizing
D) Evaluating
Answer: C) Synthesizing
96. The process of adjusting teaching methods to cater to diverse learner needs is known as:
A) Standardization
B) Differentiation
C) Homogenization
D) Generalization
Answer: B) Differentiation
97. Which assessment type is used to monitor learning progress during instruction?
A) Diagnostic assessment
B) Formative assessment
C) Summative assessment
D) Norm-referenced assessment Answer: B) Formative assessment
98. The belief that intelligence is not fixed and can be developed through effort and learning is known as:
A) Fixed mindset
B) Growth mindset
C) Cognitive mindset
D) Adaptive mindset Answer: B) Growth mindset
99. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?
A) Studying to get good grades
B) Learning a new skill out of curiosity
C) Completing homework to avoid punishment
D) Participating in class for teacher praise Answer: B) Learning a new skill out of curiosity
100. The process of thinking about one's own thinking and learning processes is called:
A) Metacognition B) Self-reflection C) Critical thinking D) Cognitive dissonance
Answer: A) Metacognition
#ntetayush #ntetayush2025 #ntetayushclasses #ntetayushexam #ntetayushquestionpaper #ntetayush2025answerkey #ntetayush2026 #ntetayushbooks #ayushqureapp #neetpginternship #neetayush #ntetayushand #ayushandayush #ayushandayushifamily
